I remember thinking when I was a kid in history class that it seemed so unfair that once upon a time people could not vote unless they owned land, among other conditions.
Did the founding fathers have a reason for this rule that has been lost over time? Do property owners have a greater stake in the political process, or are the rules of yesteryear just another means of keeping political power away from the commoners and in the hands of a wealthier elite?
Let us know your thoughts on today’s open line.